Gay Marriage, Child-Rearing, Rights and Government

From the letters to the editor, at the Wall Street Journal:

Regarding Prop 8 and DOMA:

There is nothing in the Constitution requiring any level of government to treat homosexuality on an equal footing with heterosexuality. Also, there is nothing that requires the federal government to recognize any class of marriage supported by the states—just look at polygamy and Utah history, for example.

Prop 8 itself was passed to address a blatant case of judicial activism in which California courts struck down a constitutional law passed by the people of California. The attempt to overturn it is more of the same.

The question is, do we live in a democracy, or do we live in a state where the will of the people can be reversed if a sufficient number of elites decide to do so?

Richard Sol
Los Angeles

If the people of California may not arbitrarily define marriage as a relationship between one man and one woman, then why may they arbitrarily define it as a relationship between two, and only two, people?

If I want to have several marriage partners at the same time, and if I want them all to have equal access to spousal benefits from my employer, how might we fashion a constitutional challenge to California's bigamy law?

Morgan Foster
Indianapolis

PREVIOUSLY: "Leftists Could Push Polygamy After Same-Sex Marriage."